Nobody
capable of useful work need today lack food and shelter in the advanced
countries, and for those incapable of themselves earning enough these
necessities are generally provided outside the market. Poverty in the
relative sense must of course continue to exist outside of any
completely egalitarian society: so long as there exists inequality,
somebody must be at the bottom of the scale. But the abolition of
absolute poverty is not helped by the endeavour to achieve 'social
justice'; in fact, in many of the countries in which absolute poverty is
still an acute problem, the concern for 'social justice' has become one
of the greatest obstacles in the elimination of poverty. In the West
the rise of the great masses to tolerable comfort has been the effect of
the general growth of wealth and has been merely slowed down by
measures interfering with the market mechanism. It has been this market
mechanism which has created the increase of aggregate income, which also
has made it possible to provide outside the market for the support of
those unable to earn enough. But the attempts to 'correct' the results
of the market in the direction of 'social justice' have probably
produced more injustice in the form of new privileges, obstacles to
mobility and frustration of efforts than they have contributed to the
alleviation of the lot of the poor.
What do you think Hayek is referring to and do you agree or disagree with him and why? Are there other economists we have studied that would support his view or disagree with him? And what was the basis for their view?